1. Say that p is prime, and p | a. Show that for some integer m,
p2 | ma.
Let m=p. Then p | a
=> a = pb for some b
=> ma = mpb = p2b for some b
=> ma is a multiple of p2
=> p2 | ma.
2. Let X be a set with 5 elements, and Y a set with 0 elements.
Show that every function from X to Y is 1:1.
It is impossible to make a function from X to Y, since the elements in X have nowhere to go. So indeed, every function from X to Y is
3. Let S be a subset of X, where S has m>0 elements and X has n elements.
We already showed that the number of functions from X to S is mn.
How many f:X->S have the property that f(s)=s for all s in S? Prove your answer.
To specify a function from X to S, we need to say where each element of X goes. We already know where the m elements of S go: to themselves. It remains to specify where the other n-m elements of X go, in S. Each has m independent possibilities, giving mn-m, just as when we counted all functions X->S.
4. Let X be a set. How big can X be, if
Each one of these has an answer, like "17 elements, no more". In which case give an example with 18 elements that doesn't have the property.
Sym: 1. The relation {(a,b)} on {a,b} is not symmetric.
Trans: 1. The relation {(a,b),(b,a)} is not transitive.
Ref: 0. The relation {} on {a} is not reflexive.
5. Let X={red,green,blue}, Y={0,1,2}, and Z={even,odd}. Let p:Y->Z be the parity function, so p(0)=p(2)=even, p(1)=odd. Describe the functions f:X->Y such that the composite p o f:X->Z is not onto. Show there are nine of them. How many of those f are 1:1? Draw three of them (put X, Y in columns, and draw arrows from each x to f(x)).
For p o f to not be onto, either everything in X goes to even, or to odd.
If X all goes to odd, then f:X->Y has to take everything to 1. One function so far.
If X all goes to even, then f:X->Y is really a function to {0,2}, and there are 23 such functions. Eight more.
Forgive me for not drawing these in ASCII.
6. (The "Freshman's Dream".) Let a,b be integers. Show that
(a+b)3 is congruent to a3+b3 mod 3.
(a+b)3 = a3 + 3a2b + 3ab2 + b3.
So the difference between that and a3 + b3 is 3(a2b + ab2), a multiple of 3.
7. Is the same true with each 3 replaced by 4?
(I shouldn't have to add:) If true, prove it; if false, provide a counterexample.
No; let a,b=1. Then (a+b)4 is 0 mod 4, but a4+b4 is 2 mod 4.
(In fact it holds for all prime exponents.)
No comments:
Post a Comment